Will We Listen?

 God speaks to people- Exo 19:9  And the LORD said unto Moses, Lo, I come unto thee in a thick cloud, that the people may hear when I speak with thee, and believe thee for ever. And Moses told the words of the people unto the LORD. 

The PEOPLE may hear.  

The people HEARD God. 

Moses wasn't speaking hearsay, he wasn't alone in hearing God in this moment.  The people could hear when God spoke with Moses.  Why did God allow this? Because, He wanted the people to BELIEVE. He knew that the people could simply say all this is Moses' doing, these are Moses' words not God's. When they actually heard God's voice they could no longer believe that it was all Moses' doing.  Yes, they'd been given miracle after miracle, but still, mankind are prone to doubt. 

When you hear for yourself the voice of God, you can no longer doubt without doing yourself a grave disservice.

The voice of God spoke the TEN COMMANDMENTS, they spoke the ROYAL LAW.  God's speaking to us is found in His law for all time.  

God's voice- we can hear it in His word.

Will we listen? 

(Excerpt)

The Grand Conclusion Romans 3:19-22

19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law; that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. 20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight; for by the law is the knowledge of sin. 21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; 22 even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe.

Within the Law. 

This is not the place to consider the force of the term "under the law," since it does not really occur here. It should be "in the law," as in Romans 2:12, for the Greek words are the same in both places. The words for "under the law" are entirely different. Why the translators have given us "under the law" in this place,  and also in 1 Corinthians 9:21, where the term is also "in the law," as noted in Young's Concordance, it is impossible to determine. 

There certainly is no reason for it. 

The rendering is purely arbitrary. 

What the verse before us really says is, "Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are in the law," or, "within the sphere or jurisdiction of the law." This is an obvious fact, and in view of what immediately follows, it is a very important fact to keep in mind.

"What the Law Saith." 

The voice of the law is the voice of God. 

The law is the truth, because it was spoken with God's own voice. 

In the covenant which God made with the Jews concerning the Ten Commandments, he said of the law, "Now therefore, if ye will obey my voice." etc. Ex. 19:5. The commandments were spoken "in the mount out of the midst of the fire, of the cloud, and of the thick darkness, with a great voice." Deut. 5:22. 

Therefore when the law of God speaks to a man, it is God himself speaking to that man. Satan has invented a proverb,  which he has induced many people to believe, to the effect that "the voice of the people is the voice of God."  This is a part of his great lie by which he causes many to think themselves above the law of God. Let every one who loves the truth, substitute for that invention of Satan the truth that the voice of the law of God is the voice of God.